The greatest DECEPTION for Muslims is to believe that Allah of the Qur’an is the SAME God of the Torah as claimed in QS 29:46. Where as the true God is referred to as FATHER throughout the Torah and Gospel, Allah of the Qur’an, in no way, shape or form is he FATHER to anyone one. (QS 6:100). This is a major, major CONTRADICTION!
The true God of the Torah and Gospel spiritually is our Father (Deuteronomy 32:6, Isaiah 63:16, 64:8, Jeremiah 31:9)
King David would also call God, “Father” (Psalm 89:26).
Jesus also taught, as did Moses and the Prophets, that God is our Father: “This, then, is how you should pray: “ ‘Our Father in heaven, hallowed be your name” (Matthew 6:9).
Strangely, Allah claims to be the Most High but that is a title which belongs only to the true God, whose special, eternal and covenant name (which he revealed to mankind through Moses in the Torah) is given as follows: ‘God also said to Moses, “Say to the Israelites, ‘The Lord, the God of your fathers—the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac and the God of Jacob—has sent me to you.’ “This is MY NAME FOREVER, the name you shall call me from GENERATION to GENERATION.” (Exodus 3:15).
Jesus, in the Gospel, also referred to the covenant name of God:
‘But about the resurrection of the dead—have you not read what God said to you, ‘I am the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob’? He is not the God of the dead but of the living.” (Matthew 22:31-32).
Is this covenant name (used both in the Torah and Gospel) any one of the 99 names of the 7th century god, Allah? In which verse of the Qur’an or hadith can you find this eternal and covenant name of God?
For any beloved Muslim with common sense, it is obvious that Allah of the Qur’an is nothing more than a 7th century imitation of the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob by either a false angel or Muhammad himself. Allah of the Qur’an has no written historical records or oral tradition before 610, except as the pagan god, Hubal (“He who is Baal”) worshipped at the Kaaba, the centre of pagan worship in Mecca. Hubal was the Allah of the Kaaba.
Baal is Satan. Satan vows: “I will make myself like the Most High” (Isaiah 14:14) so it is no surprise that Allah also claims to be the Most High. Satan “disguises himself as an ANGEL of light” and uses SERVANTS [like “prophets” Joseph Smith (of the cultic Mormon church) and Muhammad] who also “disguise themselves as servants of RIGHTEOUSNESS” (2 Corinthians 11:14-15) hence the 5 pillars of Islam and its RIGHTEOUS DEEDS to a false god, Allah.
Muhammad and Joseph Smith both claim that an angel from heaven appeared to them and gave them verses to write down. The mysterious angel never introduced itself to Muhammad as Jibreel. It was Khadijah, through her cousin Waraqa bin Nawfal, who CONVINCED Muhammad that this was “JIBREEL” the real angel Gabriel of the Bible]. What knowledge of the angelic realm/world did Waraqah possess to make him instantly conclude that this was indeed the angel Gabriel of the Bible? Joseph Smith claims that an angel from Heaven named “MARONI” gave him verses on golden tablets.
The claim by cults and false religions that their prophet could neither read nor write is CENTRAL to the cult because it protects the cult from accusation that they did not HEAR from an angel but instead READ and copied from texts of the Bible.
1. Islam: the religion of Baal worship [start at the 19th minute mark] https://youtu.be/bsVjBnv-zFs
2. Allah’s true identity exposed: https://youtu.be/rvxkx0BnAA8
I’m slapping Arab Christians with Baal worship because they also worship Allah? I’m always amazed by Muslims who uncritically believe that just because Arab Christians worship “Allah”, then this is the same Allah of the Kaaba and hajr e aswad. No! The NAME is the same but their IDENTITY is different. Allah is a generic name for God in the same way that a English speaking Muslims might refer to their subject of worship as “God” although this god is rejected by Christians as a false god different from their God.
Arab Christians worship the true God of the Torah and Gospel (who is called our FATHER (Deuteronomy 32:6 and Isaiah 63:16, 64:8, Jeremiah 31:9) and whose special, eternal and covenant name (which he revealed to mankind through Moses) is “the God of Abraham, Isaac and the God of Jacob” (Exodus 3:15). This IS the true God of the Torah and Gospel, not Allah the 7th century god who falsely claims to have sent the Torah and Gospel! The covenant name of the true God is not any one of the 99 names of the 7th century god, Allah.
Arab Christians believe that Jesus is the Son of God and that the Son of God is ONE with the Father and that the Son will return, not Allah, in the end of the age (not as the imposter of Jesus, Isa, who will come to “break crosses”) to judge the world.
Do Arab Christians believe that Muhammad is a prophet of the true God? NO! Arab Christians believe that the mysterious angel which appeared to Muhammad was not the true Gabriel of the Bible but a demonic angel yet Khadijah convinced Muhammad it was “Jibreel”. Did Khadijah have the divine power to determine matters of the angelic world?
Then this makes Arab Christians unbelievers who should be struck with a sword on the necks and fingertips! (Qur’an 8:12-13)
Do Arab Christians pray 5 times a day to a false god facing towards the Kaaba (the house of Allah) and Hajr e aswad (Black stone) which are an abomination to the true God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob? No.
Don’t be deceived, Arab Christians don’t worship Allah of the Qur’an.
Blessings!
I said:
“If just the MENTIONING OF ALLAH anywhere refers to the moon god Hubal, then you are also slapping the Arab Christians in the face.”
Allah is generic for God I agree. I am aware Arab Christians and Muslims don’t worship the same Allah. Read my comment carefully. I never said Christians and Muslims worship the same God.
Which means that you are a heretic because your god claims to be the God of the Torah and Gospel:
29:46. (Believers!) observe all the propriety when you argue with the people of the Scripture; but those who are bent upon behaving unjustly among them do not agree to these principles (so deal with them accordingly). And say (to them), ‘We believe in all that is revealed to us and in that which has been revealed to you, and our God and your God is One, and to Him we stand resigned.’
So here are the questions related to this verse which you are avoiding:
QUESTION 1: The Qur’an says Muhammad is found written in the Torah and Gospel (QS 7:156-157 and 61:6). If the Gospel books are written by anonymous Romans, the Greek or Paul, then why do early and modern Muslim scholars claim to find Muhammad written in the book of John as proof that Muhammad was the “Spirit of Truth”/”Helper” (parakletos) to come? In particular, one of Islam’s important scholar, Ibn Ishaq, (died around 767 AD), who wrote the oldest biography (called the “Sira” or “Sirat” of the prophet of Islam), quotes John 15:23-16:1 and says that it is taken from the Gospel (Injeel) of Jesus Al Masih, “which the Apostle John wrote down for Jesus’s followers.” [The Life of Muhammad: A Translation of Ibn Ishaq’s Sirat Rasul Allah pp.103-104].
If the book of John is not inspired by the true God, why (as late as the 8TH CENTURY) would the earliest Muslim scholars find Muhammad in a Harry Potter like novel (since this is your claim about the book of John) instead of going to the Gospel? This makes no sense whatsoever unless (which is the truth here) the book of John was and is part of the Gospel!
Is this not HUGE EVIDENCE of the reliability of the Gospel and the existence of KNOWN writers like Matthew, Mark, Luke and John (rather than ANONYMOUS writers) who were as inspired by the Holy Spirit as Moses was?
It’s tough! Muslims can’t, in the same sentence both quote from the book of John to find Muhammad and then in the same sentence claim it’s written by an anonymous or pagan writer? Only Muslims have the special ability, through hypocrisy, of uniting these two extreme opposites!
As a coping mechanism to deal with the opposing teachings of the Injeel and the Qur’an, Muslims have to claim “corruption” or “disappearance”. Neither Muhammad (despite confirming the Torah and Gospel) nor early Muslim scholars ever quoted or recited a single verse from a mythical “Gospel of Jesus Christ” which once existed but then disappeared. It’s just a plain lie and an desperate effort to wish away the Gospels which reject the later teaching of the Qur’an brought by a fallen and mysterious angelic creature which Khadijah’s cousin, Waraqah, gave the name “Jibreel” to.
QUESTION 2: Why would Allah, whom you believe to be a perfect God, instruct Muslims (QS 7:156-157 and 61:6) to go to the Gospel and Torah to find Ahmed (Muhammad) if the Gospel had already disappeared or had been partly corrupted by the 7th century?
Did Allah, in the 7th century, direct Jews and Christians to his corrupted word?
If the Gospel disappeared, WHY in the 7TH CENTURY was the Christian Waraqa bin Naufal (Sahih al-Bukhari 3392) [whom Muhammad turned to for help after seeing the mysterious angel claimed to be the angel Gabriel of the Bible] reading from an ARABIC TRANSLATION of the GOSPEL?
QUESTION 3: With reference to the Qur’an, in QS18:27 Allah says “There is none who can CHANGE His word”.
Does Allah claim the Torah and Gospel to be his word too? Yes (QS 3:3)
Is there anywhere in the Qur’an where Allah EXPLICITLY says that he has chosen to protect ONLY the Qur’an from being changed (corrupted) BUT NOT THE TORAH AND GOSPEL?
QUESTION 4: In QS 3:3 Allah says that he sent the Torah and Gospel and they “STILL REMAIN”. This means they were PHYSICALLY PRESENT and UNCHANGED (as evidence of their protection from corruption by Allah) as late as THE 7TH CENTURY. So who is wrong about the preservation of the Torah and Gospel: Allah or Muslims?
Can you provide a VERSE where the Qur’an says only a part or fraction of the Torah and Gospel remain?
QUESTION 5: If the Quran is RIGHT about Jesus not being crucified, doesn’t this mean the Qur’an is WRONG when it claims that no one can corrupt Allah’s word? Wouldn’t Allah’s claim that his word cannot be changed be false, since the Christians would have “corrupted” the Gospel to include the crucifixion and resurrection account, with Jesus even proving his crucifixion to the disciples?
QUESTION 6: In QS 5:43 Allah is saying the JEWS must not crossover to the Qur’an but stick to their Torah! “And how should they appoint you their judge whilst they HAVE WITH THEM the Torah which contains the law (and judgment) of Allâh. Yet they turn their backs even after that (you judge between them). And such people ARE NOT TRUE BELIEVERS.
Allah demands the same of Christians in the 7th century: QS 5:47. “And let the followers of the EVANGEL judge according to what Allâh has revealed therein. And indeed those who DO NOT JUDGE according to what Allâh has revealed it is these who are the real DISOBEDIENT.
Allah is saying the Jews and Christians have his perfect word, the Torah and Gospel, IN THE 7TH CENTURY and must not abandon them but they must perform or judge themselves by, otherwise they are DISOBEDIENT.
Muslims on the other hand say when the Qur’an came, the Torah and Gospel were already corrupted and the Jews and Christians were no longer to judge themselves by the Torah and Gospel.
Who is WRONG: Allah or Muslims?
Provide a VERSE from the Qur’an which explicitly says that the Qur’an came to REPLACE or RESTORE the Torah and Gospel?
Finally, the claim of a “Gospel” not written by Mathew, Mark, Luke and John is therefore not only ignorant, dishonest and transparently false but it also goes against the teaching of the Qur’an. The gospel of Jesus Christ is not a book but the good news or message of the kingdom of God which Jesus was sharing in the places he went to.
The conclusion is this: besides the fiction, disinformation and conspiracy theories of Muslims (not the Qur’an), there is no manuscript or oral evidence of a mythical book called the “Gospel of Jesus Christ” anywhere between the first and the 7th century. The New Testament from BEFORE and AFTER the the 7th century has been preserved in more manuscripts (complete and fragmented) than any other work. Historically and archeologically the only Torah and Gospel the Jews and Christians have ever had with them (BEFORE, DURING and AFTER their confirmation by the Qur’an in the 7th century) are the God-breathed books (2 Timothy 3:16) which make up the five books of Moses (Genesis, Exodus, Leviticus, Numbers and Deuteronomy) and the four gospel accounts (according to Mathew, Mark, Luke and John) found in and identical to the modern Bible today of whichever translation, update or version (ALL of which state that Jesus Christ is the Son of God crucified on the cross).
While the claim is that Muhammad was illiterate, it doesn’t mean he was dumb, deaf or dull. Muhammad was called “all ears” (QS 9:61) because he was borrowing from belief systems around him (including Syriac Christian tradition, tales and the Talmud) around him inorder to attract converts to his new religion [hence his initial acceptance (to the delight of the Quraysh) of the pagan Quraysh goddesses Al-Lat, al-‘Uzza, and Manat as intercessors] to the extent that you have the dilemma of the Qur’an confirming scriptures like the Torah and Gospels which reveal a different God (the true God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob) who is NOT Allah of the Qur’an even though the Qur’an falsely claims so (QS 29:46).
Blessings!
“Allah of the Qur’an has no written historical records or oral tradition before 610, except as the pagan god, Hubal (“He who is Baal”) worshipped at the Kaaba, the centre of pagan worship in Mecca. Hubal was the Allah of the Kaaba, hence you have Muhammad’s father also being called Abdullah because the name Allah existed before Islam.”
Doesn’t mean the Allah of Islam is the pagan god Hubal. The Baal of Judaism isn’t the Baal of Canaanite myth (as you claimed in previous discussion). Allah literally translates to “The God”. God is the default English term for referring to a religious deity, it could be Shiva, Brahma, Zeus, Mithra. You and I worship Allah/God, but that doesn’t mean we worship the same Allah/God. Same can be applied to any other religious group. If just the mentioning of Allah anywhere refers to the moon god Hubal, then you are also slapping the Arab Christians in the face.
If Allah of Islam is the moon god Hubal, where does Allah instruct us in the Quran to bow/venerate the moon?
And of His signs are the night and day and the sun and moon. Do not prostrate to the sun or to the moon, but prostate to Allah, who created them, if it should be Him that you worship. – Qur’an 41:37.
I’m still waiting for you answers to all the six questions because if we don’t get this out of the way we will be moving around in circles like fools. Here they are:
QUESTION 1: The Qur’an says Muhammad is found written in the Torah and Gospel (QS 7:156-157 and 61:6). If the Gospel books are written by anonymous Romans, the Greek or Paul, then why do early and modern Muslim scholars claim to find Muhammad written in the book of John as proof that Muhammad was the “Spirit of Truth”/”Helper” (parakletos) to come? In particular, one of Islam’s important scholar, Ibn Ishaq, (died around 767 AD), who wrote the oldest biography (called the “Sira” or “Sirat” of the prophet of Islam), quotes John 15:23-16:1 and says that it is taken from the Gospel (Injeel) of Jesus Al Masih, “which the Apostle John wrote down for Jesus’s followers.” [The Life of Muhammad: A Translation of Ibn Ishaq’s Sirat Rasul Allah pp.103-104].
If the book of John is not inspired by the true God, why (as late as the 8TH CENTURY) would the earliest Muslim scholars find Muhammad in a Harry Potter like novel (since this is your claim about the book of John) instead of going to the Gospel? This makes no sense whatsoever unless (which is the truth here) the book of John was and is part of the Gospel!
Is this not HUGE EVIDENCE of the reliability of the Gospel and the existence of KNOWN writers like Matthew, Mark, Luke and John (rather than ANONYMOUS writers) who were as inspired by the Holy Spirit as Moses was?
It’s tough! Muslims can’t, in the same sentence both quote from the book of John to find Muhammad and then in the same sentence claim it’s written by an anonymous or pagan writer? Only Muslims have the special ability, through hypocrisy, of uniting these two extreme opposites!
As a coping mechanism to deal with the opposing teachings of the Injeel and the Qur’an, Muslims have to claim “corruption” or “disappearance”. Neither Muhammad (despite confirming the Torah and Gospel) nor early Muslim scholars ever quoted or recited a single verse from a mythical “Gospel of Jesus Christ” which once existed but then disappeared. It’s just a plain lie and an desperate effort to wish away the Gospels which reject the later teaching of the Qur’an brought by a fallen and mysterious angelic creature which Khadijah’s cousin, Waraqah, gave the name “Jibreel” to.
QUESTION 2: Why would Allah, whom you believe to be a perfect God, instruct Muslims (QS 7:156-157 and 61:6) to go to the Gospel and Torah to find Ahmed (Muhammad) if the Gospel had already disappeared or had been partly corrupted by the 7th century?
Did Allah, in the 7th century, direct Jews and Christians to his corrupted word?
If the Gospel disappeared, WHY in the 7TH CENTURY was the Christian Waraqa bin Naufal (Sahih al-Bukhari 3392) [whom Muhammad turned to for help after seeing the mysterious angel claimed to be the angel Gabriel of the Bible] reading from an ARABIC TRANSLATION of the GOSPEL?
QUESTION 3: With reference to the Qur’an, in QS18:27 Allah says “There is none who can CHANGE His word”.
Does Allah claim the Torah and Gospel to be his word too? Yes (QS 3:3)
Is there anywhere in the Qur’an where Allah EXPLICITLY says that he has chosen to protect ONLY the Qur’an from being changed (corrupted) BUT NOT THE TORAH AND GOSPEL?
QUESTION 4: In QS 3:3 Allah says that he sent the Torah and Gospel and they “STILL REMAIN”. This means they were PHYSICALLY PRESENT and UNCHANGED (as evidence of their protection from corruption by Allah) as late as THE 7TH CENTURY. So who is wrong about the preservation of the Torah and Gospel: Allah or Muslims?
Can you provide a VERSE where the Qur’an says only a part or fraction of the Torah and Gospel remain?
QUESTION 5: If the Quran is RIGHT about Jesus not being crucified, doesn’t this mean the Qur’an is WRONG when it claims that no one can corrupt Allah’s word? Wouldn’t Allah’s claim that his word cannot be changed be false, since the Christians would have “corrupted” the Gospel to include the crucifixion and resurrection account, with Jesus even proving his crucifixion to the disciples?
QUESTION 6: In QS 5:43 Allah is saying the JEWS must not crossover to the Qur’an but stick to their Torah! “And how should they appoint you their judge whilst they HAVE WITH THEM the Torah which contains the law (and judgment) of Allâh. Yet they turn their backs even after that (you judge between them). And such people ARE NOT TRUE BELIEVERS.
Allah demands the same of Christians in the 7th century: QS 5:47. “And let the followers of the EVANGEL judge according to what Allâh has revealed therein. And indeed those who DO NOT JUDGE according to what Allâh has revealed it is these who are the real DISOBEDIENT.
Allah is saying the Jews and Christians have his perfect word, the Torah and Gospel, IN THE 7TH CENTURY and must not abandon them but they must perform or judge themselves by, otherwise they are DISOBEDIENT.
Muslims on the other hand say when the Qur’an came, the Torah and Gospel were already corrupted and the Jews and Christians were no longer to judge themselves by the Torah and Gospel.
Who is WRONG: Allah or Muslims?
Provide a VERSE from the Qur’an which explicitly says that the Qur’an came to REPLACE or RESTORE the Torah and Gospel?
Finally, the claim of a “Gospel” not written by Mathew, Mark, Luke and John is therefore not only ignorant, dishonest and transparently false but it also goes against the teaching of the Qur’an. The gospel of Jesus Christ is not a book but the good news or message of the kingdom of God which Jesus was sharing in the places he went to.
The conclusion is this: besides the fiction, disinformation and conspiracy theories of Muslims (not the Qur’an), there is no manuscript or oral evidence of a mythical book called the “Gospel of Jesus Christ” anywhere between the first and the 7th century. The New Testament from BEFORE and AFTER the the 7th century has been preserved in more manuscripts (complete and fragmented) than any other work. Historically and archeologically the only Torah and Gospel the Jews and Christians have ever had with them (BEFORE, DURING and AFTER their confirmation by the Qur’an in the 7th century) are the God-breathed books (2 Timothy 3:16) which make up the five books of Moses (Genesis, Exodus, Leviticus, Numbers and Deuteronomy) and the four gospel accounts (according to Mathew, Mark, Luke and John) found in and identical to the modern Bible today of whichever translation, update or version (ALL of which state that Jesus Christ is the Son of God crucified on the cross).
While the claim is that Muhammad was illiterate, it doesn’t mean he was dumb, deaf or dull. Muhammad was called “all ears” (QS 9:61) because he was borrowing from belief systems around him (including Syriac Christian tradition, tales and the Talmud) around him inorder to attract converts to his new religion [hence his initial acceptance (to the delight of the Quraysh) of the pagan Quraysh goddesses Al-Lat, al-‘Uzza, and Manat as intercessors] to the extent that you have the dilemma of the Qur’an confirming scriptures like the Torah and Gospels which reveal a different God (the true God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob) who is NOT Allah of the Qur’an even though the Qur’an falsely claims so (QS 29:46).
Blessings!