What does the QUR’AN ACTUALLY says about the PRESERVATION of the TORAH and GOSPEL?

It’s shockingly common for the majority of Muslims to go with what they and dishonest scholars BELIEVE (such as the lie that the Torah and Gospel became CHANGED so Allah sent the Qur’an to REPLACE them) rather than going with what the Qur’an ACTUALLY SAYS about the PRESERVATION of the Torah and Gospel at the time of Muhammad IN THE 7TH CENTURY.

Muhammad’s cousin, Waraqa bin Naufal, had an Arabic translation of the Gospel IN THE 7TH CENTURY (Sahih al-Bukhari 3392) and one of Islam’s important scholar, Ibn Ishaq, (died around 767 AD), who wrote the oldest biography (called the “Sira” or “Sirat” of the prophet of Islam), quotes John 15:23-16:1 in the 8TH CENTURY in an effort to prove that Muhammad is the “Spirit of Truth” to come.

I sympathize with Muslims because it is impossible to believe both the Qur’an and the Gospel to be true at the same time, although the Qur’an does claim and CONFIRMS both the Torah and Gospel as Allah’s revelation/word ‘which remain’ (is unchanged) and which Jews and Christians must ‘judge themselves by’ and which they had ‘with them’ in the 7th century or else they are ‘NON BELIEVERS’ or ‘DISOBEDIENT’.

It’s a horrible contradiction for Muslims to live with because it is what happens when a false god falsely claims the Torah and Gospel to be his word. So the Muslim is left between a rock and a hard place: he/she has no choice really but to misrepresent both the Qur’an and the Gospel inorder to maintain confidence in the Qur’an! Beloved Muslim, have you ever felt this way too?

The Muslim is left with no choice but to believe in (conspiracy theories) the myth of a book called the “Gospel of Jesus Christ” which either disappeared or got corrupted/changed (by the Romans, Greek philosophers or the Church/Nicea) before the Qur’an came as a final revelation to “replace”, “restore” or “correct” what had been corrupted!
So what does the Qur’an actually say?

Sura 7:156-157:
“And I will write down (my mercy) for those who are righteous and give alms and who believe in our signs; who follow the apostle, the unlettered prophet, whom they find written in the Torah and the Gospel “THAT IS WITH THEM.”

The Torah and Gospel have not disappeared! They are “with them” (the Jews and Christians) in the 7th century!

5:43. And how should they appoint you their judge whilst they HAVE WITH THEM the Torah which contains the law (and judgment) of Allâh. Yet they turn their backs even after that (you judge between them). And such people ARE NOT TRUE BELIEVERS (neither in the Qur’ân nor in the Torah).

It’s clear that the Jews, as late as the 7th century, are commanded to judge by the Torah, not the Qur’an (see also QS 2:40-44)

5:47. And let the followers of the EVANGEL judge according to what Allâh has revealed therein. And indeed those who DO NOT JUDGE according to what Allâh has revealed it is these who are the real DISOBEDIENT”. So Allah claims the Torah and Gospel to be his WORD (Wahi).

It’s clear that Christians, as late as the 7th century, must judge by the Gospel otherwise they are “disobedient”

Sura 5:50:
“And let the People of the Gospel judge by what God has revealed in it. If any fail to judge by what God has revealed, THEY ARE LICENTIOUS.”

Sura 5:71:
“Say, O People of the Book! You are not (founded) on anything UNTIL you PERFORM the TORAH and the GOSPEL, and what was revealed to you from your Lord.” Clearly, Allah claims the Torah to be his WORD which the Jews and Christians are commanded to practice otherwise they are lost.

The Qur’an further confirms that the Torah and Gospels were not corrupted nor disappeared as late as the 7th century. They still EXISTED.
3:3. He has revealed to you gradually this perfect Book (-the Qur’ân) which meets all your requirements, fulfilling that (prophecies in the Scriptures) which PRECEDED it AND WHICH STILL REMAIN. He revealed the Torah and the Evangel”

Note that the Qur’an doesn’t say which “partly remains” or is incomplete. NOWHERE is the Qur’an saying that it is REPLACING the Torah and Gospel nor instructing the Jews and Christians to STOP using the Torah and Gospel.

If Muslims claim (incorrectly so) that the Torah and Gospel were corrupted, when would that have been? BEFORE or AFTER Muhammad?
Can you provide VERSES or answers to any ONE of the FOLLOWING SIX questions in line with what the QUR’AN ACTUALLY teaches about the PRESERVATION of the Torah and Gospel (and not according to conspiracy theories, fiction or disinformation):
QUESTION 1: The Qur’an says Muhammad is found written in the Torah and Gospel (QS 7:156-157 and 61:6). If the Gospel books are written by anonymous Romans, the Greek or Paul, then why do early and modern Muslim scholars claim to find Muhammad written in the book of John to prove that Muhammad is the (Parakletos) “Spirit of Truth” to come? In particular, one of Islam’s important scholar, Ibn Ishaq, (died around 767 AD), who wrote the oldest biography (called the “Sira” or “Sirat” of the prophet of Islam), quotes John 15:23-16:1 and says that it is taken from the Gospel (Injeel) of Jesus Al Masih, “which the Apostle John wrote down for Jesus’s followers.” [The Life of Muhammad: A Translation of Ibn Ishaq’s Sirat Rasul Allah pp.103-104].

If the book of John is not inspired by the true God, why (as late as the 8TH CENTURY) would the earliest Muslim scholars find Muhammad in a Harry Potter like novel (since this is your claim about the book of John) instead of going to the Gospel? This makes no sense whatsoever unless (which is the truth here) the book of John was and is part of the Gospel!

Is this not HUGE EVIDENCE of the reliability of the Gospel and the existence of KNOWN writers like Matthew, Mark, Luke and John (rather than ANONYMOUS writers) who were as inspired by the Holy Spirit as Moses was?

It’s tough! Muslims can’t, in the same sentence both quote from the book of John to find Muhammad and then in the same sentence claim it’s written by an anonymous pagan writer and not part of the Gospel. Only Muslims are capable, through hypocrisy, of uniting these two extreme opposites! Neither Muhammad (who confirmed the Torah and Gospels to be preserved and in the hands of Jews and Christians in the 7th century) nor Muslim scholars ever quoted or recited even a single verse from a so-called “Gospel of Jesus Christ” which once existed before Muhammad but then disappeared! It’s just a plain lie and an desperate effort to wish away the Gospels which reject the later teaching of the Qur’an brought by a fallen and mysterious angelic creature which Khadijah’s cousin, Waraqah, gave the name “Jibreel” to.

As a coping mechanism to deal with the opposing teachings of the Injeel and the Qur’an, Muslims have to claim “corruption” or “disappearance”. Neither Muhammad (despite confirming the Torah and Gospel) nor early Muslim scholars ever quoted or recited a single verse from a mythical “Gospel of Jesus Christ” which once existed but then disappeared. It’s just a plain lie and an desperate effort to wish away the Gospels which reject the later teaching of the Qur’an.

QUESTION 2: Why would Allah, whom you believe to be a perfect God, instruct Muslims (QS 7:156-157 and 61:6) to go to the Gospel and Torah to find Ahmed (Muhammad) if the Gospel had already disappeared or had been partly corrupted by the 7th century?
Did Allah, in the 7th century, direct Jews and Christians to his corrupted word?
If the Gospel disappeared, WHY in the 7TH CENTURY was the Christian Waraqa bin Naufal (Sahih al-Bukhari 3392) [whom Muhammad turned to for help after seeing the mysterious angel claimed to be the angel Gabriel of the Bible] reading from an ARABIC TRANSLATION of the GOSPEL?

QUESTION 3: With reference to the Qur’an, in QS18:27 Allah says “There is none who can CHANGE His word”.
Does Allah claim the Torah and Gospel to be his word too? Yes (QS 3:3)

Is there anywhere in the Qur’an where Allah EXPLICITLY says that he has chosen to protect ONLY the Qur’an from being changed (corrupted) BUT NOT THE TORAH AND GOSPEL?

QUESTION 4: In QS 3:3 Allah says that he sent the Torah and Gospel and they “STILL REMAIN”. This means they were PHYSICALLY PRESENT and UNCHANGED (as evidence of their protection from corruption by Allah) as late as THE 7TH CENTURY. So who is wrong about the preservation of the Torah and Gospel: Allah or Muslims?
Can you provide a VERSE where the Qur’an says only a part or fraction of the Torah and Gospel remain?

QUESTION 5: If the Quran is RIGHT about Jesus not being crucified, doesn’t this mean the Qur’an is WRONG when it claims that no one can corrupt Allah’s word? Wouldn’t Allah’s claim that his word cannot be changed be false, since the Christians would have “corrupted” the Gospel to include the crucifixion and resurrection account, with Jesus even proving his crucifixion to the disciples?

QUESTION 6: In QS 5:43 Allah is saying the JEWS must not crossover to the Qur’an but stick to their Torah! “And how should they appoint you their judge whilst they HAVE WITH THEM the Torah which contains the law (and judgment) of Allâh. Yet they turn their backs even after that (you judge between them). And such people ARE NOT TRUE BELIEVERS.

Allah demands the same of Christians in the 7th century: QS 5:47. “And let the followers of the EVANGEL judge according to what Allâh has revealed therein. And indeed those who DO NOT JUDGE according to what Allâh has revealed it is these who are the real DISOBEDIENT.

Allah is saying the Jews and Christians have his perfect word, the Torah and Gospel, IN THE 7TH CENTURY and must not abandon them but they must perform or judge themselves by, otherwise they are DISOBEDIENT.

Muslims on the other hand say when the Qur’an came, the Torah and Gospel were already corrupted and the Jews and Christians were no longer to judge themselves by the Torah and Gospel.
Who is WRONG: Allah or Muslims?

Provide a VERSE from the Qur’an which explicitly says that  the Qur’an came to REPLACE, RESTORE or CORRECT the Torah and Gospel?

Finally, the claim of a “Gospel” not written by Mathew, Mark, Luke and John is therefore not only ignorant, dishonest and transparently false but it also goes against the teaching of the Qur’an. The gospel of Jesus Christ is not a book but the good news or message of the kingdom of God which Jesus was sharing in the places he went to.

The conclusion is this: besides the fiction, disinformation and conspiracy theories of Muslims (not the Qur’an), there is no manuscript or oral evidence of a mythical book called the “Gospel of Jesus Christ” anywhere between the first and the 7th century. The New Testament from BEFORE and AFTER the the 7th century has been preserved in more manuscripts (complete and fragmented) than any other work. Historically and archeologically the only Torah and Gospel the Jews and Christians have ever had with them (BEFORE, DURING and AFTER their confirmation by the Qur’an in the 7th century) are the God-breathed books (2 Timothy 3:16) which make up the five books of Moses (Genesis, Exodus, Leviticus, Numbers and Deuteronomy) and the four gospel accounts (according to Mathew, Mark, Luke and John) found in and identical to the modern Bible today of whichever translation, update or version (ALL of which state that Jesus Christ is the Son of God crucified on the cross). 

While the claim is that Muhammad was illiterate, it doesn’t mean he was dumb, deaf or dull. Muhammad was called “all ears” (QS 9:61) because he was borrowing from belief systems around him (including Syriac Christian tradition, tales and the Talmud) around him inorder to attract converts to his new religion [hence his initial acceptance (to the delight of the Quraysh) of the pagan Quraysh goddesses Al-Lat, al-‘Uzza, and Manat as intercessors] to the extent that you have the dilemma of the Qur’an confirming scriptures like the Torah and Gospels which reveal a different God (the true God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob) who is NOT Allah of the Qur’an even though the Qur’an falsely claims so (QS 29:46).
Blessings!