Did Jesus intend for the good news (gospel) of the Kingdom of God to be for the Jews only? The plan of God’s salvation extends to everyone from every nation, not the Jews only. So what if Jesus was initially sent to God’s chosen nation (Israel) so that the Jews would then preach the gospel of salvation to other nations? At the end, Jews and Gentiles both receive salvation. The difference is the same!
The message of salvation of all mankind is clear in countless statements God makes in the Tanakh, starting from the Torah where God blessed Abram by declaring that he would be a father to many nations. God changed his name from Abram to Abraham (which means father of MANY NATIONS):
“I will bless those who bless you, and whoever curses you I will curse; and all peoples on earth will be blessed through you.”
Genesis 12:3
‘ALL THE EARTH shall worship You And sing praises to You; They shall sing praises to Your name.” Selah
Psalms 66:4
God, speaking through the prophet Isaiah, says the following of the Messiah:
“I the LORD have called thee in righteousness, and will hold thine hand, and will keep thee, and give thee for a covenant of the people, for a light of the GENTILES; to open the blind eyes, to bring out the prisoners from the prison, and them that sit in darkness out of the prison house.”
Isaiah 42:6-7
“And in that day there shall be a root of Jesse (Jesus the Messiah), which shall stand for an ensign of the people; to it shall the GENTILES seek: and his rest shall be glorious.”
Isaiah 11:10
The book of Luke speaks of a righteous man of Jerusalem (Simeon) whom God had revealed to him that he would not see death until he had seen the Christ. When he saw the child Jesus, he said:
“For mine eyes have seen thy salvation, Which thou hast prepared before the face of all people; A light to lighten the GENTILES, And the glory of thy people Israel.
Luke 2:30-32
Jesus promises the kingdom of God to a Roman officer—a GENTILE—who had faith in Him to heal his servant (Matthew 8:5-12). Jesus said that many Gentiles will share a table in the kingdom of heaven with Israel’s patriarchs. Now He adds that the “sons of the kingdom” (the Jews) will not be there, cast into outer darkness where there will be weeping and gnashing of teeth.
Jesus is not saying all Jewish people will be excluded from heaven. After all, the patriarchs will be there. Many Jewish people will come to put their faith in Jesus. His point is simply that citizenship in Israel will not provide anyone a place at the table.
Speaking of bringing the Gentiles into the kingdom of God, Jesus said :
“And other sheep I have, which are not of this fold: them also I must bring, and they shall hear my voice; and there shall be one fold, and one shepherd.
John 10:16
He [Jesus] told them, “This is what is written: The Messiah will suffer and rise from the dead on the third day, and repentance for the forgiveness of sins will be preached in his name to ALL NATIONS, beginning at JERUSALEM. Luke 24:46-47
Concerning Jesus commanding the Gospel to be preached to “all creatures”
This raises two points;
1) There was some Gospel already in existence but from history we know that the present day Gospels and letters were written by men, both known and unknown much after the departure of Prophet Jesus (peace be upon him) from earth.
2) There is a contradiction as at other places, he says to go only to Israel.
Jesus also said: “These twelve Jesus sent out with the following instructions: ‘Do not go among the Gentiles or enter any town of the Samaritans. Go rather to the lost sheep of Israel.’ (From the NIV Bible, Matthew 10:5-6)”
Regarding your comment on Jesus being sent to the Jews only here is my response according to the order of your points.
1. Check the article on the link I sent you as to what the Qur’an ACTUALLY SAYS about the reliability/preservation of the Torah and Gospel
2. There is no contradiction. Yes Jesus instructed the disciples to go only to the Jews because the gospel (good news) of the kingdom of heaven was to be preached to the Jews FIRST and then to the Gentiles AFTER. So Jesus instructing the disciples to preach to the Jews first is by no means a contradiction.
There is a serious forgery in Luke 24:44-48! It says that it is written that Jesus will die and resurrect on the third day. Where in the Old Testament do you have that?! Show me one Old Testament verse that prophesized about Jesus’ third day resurrection?